From the same source we have used on the last post comes:
If a function is a set of ordered pairs, it doesn't change, so that there is no rate of change is insane: Any Cartesian function will be a set of ordered pairs, and plenty of them change, like we don't really know what the critic meant by change, but we assume it is change in height. Even the constant function has a rate of change, regardless: That is zero. For instance, f(x)=5 gives you f'(x)=0. It does have a rate of change. It is just that the rate is zero.
Perhaps what they both meant, critic and writer, is that the slope of the function at a given point is given by the derivative of the function on that point, and the derivative function has the shape of a line that is tangent to the point. Therefore, the rate of change of the function, which is the slope of the function, on a point is given by the derivative on that point. The slope of the own derivative would be something that shouldn't be relevant here.
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